In
United States v. Cruikshank (1876), the Supreme Court of the United
States ruled that, "The right to bear arms is not granted by the
Constitution; neither is it in any manner dependent upon that instrument
for its existence" and limited the applicability of the Second
Amendment to the federal government.
But, why was it enacted? 1876 is a clue... near the end of Reconstruction... when a back-room deal was made for the White House that let the rebels (Confederates) go free.
"The Cruikshank ruling also allowed groups such as the Ku Klux Klan to
flourish and continue to use paramilitary force to suppress black
voting. As whites dominated the Southern legislatures, they turned a
blind eye on the violence, and denied African Americans any right to
bear arms by refusing to pass laws that would have granting them."
It's intent was not to arm for resistance against tyranny, but to arm against blacks.
The
SCOTUS of 1876 was attempting to appease white voters. Why else would
they consider the "right to bear arms" on a par with "life, liberty, and
the pursuit of happiness?" They were afraid that newly-freed blacks
would try to seize power. Conservatives are afraid once again... after the
election of the first African-American president.
Remember that the SCOTUS recently found (all by themselves) that racism no longer exists in America!! lol Coincidence? Nah...
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